Causatives
Question:
My ESL student asked me about this sentence:
“I don’t want to pay to have someone to wash my clothes.”
or should it read: “I don’t want to pay to have someone wash my clothes.”
Which is correct and why? I know it has something to do with infinitives, but I want to give her the correct grammatical explanation.
Arley’s Answer:
Sentences like this fall into the category of “causatives” because one person “causes” another to do something. There are three common causative verbs, “have,” “make,” and “get.”
The verbs “have” and “make” follow the same pattern:
HAVE someone DO something. (“Have” and “make” are followed by the base verb, DO.)
The verb “get” has a different pattern:
GET someone TO DO something. (“Get is followed by the infinitive.)
Underlying structure: Whether it’s a base verb or an infinitive after “have,” “make,” or “get” depends on the verb. Some verbs are followed by infinitives, some by gerunds (-ing forms), and a few by base verbs. Some verbs can be followed by two forms.
For example (these are not causative verbs–I’m just illustrating the principle of what can follow specific verbs):
- “I like TO SWIM” OR “I like SWIMMING.” (Both are correct.)
- “I enjoy SWIMMING” BUT NOT “I enjoy TO SWIM.”
So, in learning verb forms that can follow main verbs, students have to memorize which verbs take which forms. The causative verbs are just a subset of this overall topic.
It’s helpful to teach causatives in a series of lessons, starting with “have someone do something” and its meaning (general expectation of services or responsibilities: “I HAD the stylist CUT my hair short.” “She always HAS her secretary DO the filing.”
Then do “make someone do something” and its meaning (there is force or coercion involved). “Mr. Scrooge MADE everyone COME in on Thanksgiving Day.”
Finally, do “get someone TO DO something” and its meaning (there is persuasion involved). “I finally GOT my husband/wife TO GO to the doctor.” “I finally GOT my kids TO CLEAN up their room.”
Hope this helps.